Wednesday, December 15, 2010

Je[w]sus? No, JEEEEEsus.



**This post deals with whether Jesus was "Jewish" or not and I tie this theme in with the Biblical term for "Jew" in CONTRAST to the modern-day understanding for the same word.**


Here is the problem.  We have 2 different words(Jew and Hebrew in English)here being used for supposedly the same people, the Jews. We know that there is NOT a "same" people here, but 2 DIFFERENT ones (Khazar descendants V.S. people with real Hebrew blood).

Let's stick to the original Greek biblical text  here for understanding.  In it is uses ONE word for Jew, Ιουδαίος (Ee-oo-THEY-os).  This word has nothing to do with the modern term "Jew."  Jew (in English) was made up (with the "J" sound) just 200 years ago by the Ashkenazi Jews.

I first want to reference this post with a little background evidence about what I am talking about, and then I will get into some Greek.  See this segment from biblebelievers.org:

It is an incontestable fact that the word "Jew" did not come into existence until the year 1775. Prior to 1775 the word "Jew" did not exist in any language. The word "Jew" was introduced into the English for the first time in the 18th century when Sheridan used it in his play "The Rivals", II,i, "She shall have a skin like a mummy, and the beard of a Jew". Prior to this use of the word "Jew" in the English language by Sheridan in 1775 the word "Jew" had not become a word in the English language. Shakespeare never saw the word "Jew" as you will see. Shakespeare never used the word "Jew" in any of his works, the common general belief to the contrary notwithstanding. In his "Merchant of Venice", V.III.i.61, Shakespeare wrote as follows: "what is the reason? I am a Iewe, hath not a Iewe eyes?"
In the Latin St. Jerome 4th century Vulgate Edition of the New Testament Jesus is referred to by the Genitive Plural of "Iudaeus" in the Gospel by John reference to the inscription on the Cross,"Iudaeorum". It was in the 4th century that St. Jerome translated into Latin the manuscripts of the New Testament from the original languages in which they were written. This translation by St. Jerome is referred to still today as the Vulgate Edition by the Roman Catholic Church authorities, who use it today.
Jesus is referred as a so-called "Jew" for the first time in the New Testament in the 18th century. Jesus is first referred to as a so-called "Jew" in the revised 18th century editions in the English language of the 14th century first translations of the New Testament into English. The history of the origin of the word "Jew" in the English language leaves no doubt that the 18th century "Jew" is the 18th century contracted and corrupted English word for the 4th century Latin "Iudaeus" found in St. Jerome's Vulgate Edition. Of that there is no longer doubt.
The available original manuscripts from the 4th century to the 18th century accurately trace the origin and give the complete history of the word "Jew" in the English language. In these manuscripts are to be found all the many earlier English equivalents extending through the 14 centuries from the 4th to the 18th century. From the Latin "Iudaeus" to the English "Jew" these English forms included successively: "Gyu", "Giu", "Iu", "Iuu", "Iuw", "Ieuu", "Ieuy", "Iwe", "low", "Iewe", "Ieue", "Iue", "Ive", "lew", and then finally in the 18th century, "Jew". The many earlier English equivalents for "Jews" through the 14 centuries are "Giwis", "Giws", "Gyues", "Gywes", "Giwes", "Geus", "Iuys", "Iows", "Iouis", "Iews", and then also finally in the 18th century, "Jews".
Please read the rest below:
The problem is that the English texts today use "Jew" making people believe that all those people in Israel and around the world are, in fact, the same people from the Bible (Ιουδαίοι, plural).  NOOOOOO. FALSE.

In the Greek language we actually have (2) words to express "Jew", if you will, but English doesn't and this is the root of the problem with all the false understanding of this word "Jew" amongst many because no distinction can be made. The first one, again, straight from the Bible, is Ιουδαίος, which in English is really Judean.  Judean, though IS NOT synonymous with "Jew" in English, contrary to what some Christians and others believe.  This is a misnomer and mistake by many people, particularly Christians.  

The second word in Greek we use to express Jew is Εβραίος (Eh-VRAY-os).  This refers INACCURATELY to today's people in Israel or to their world brethren.  The former word, Ιουδαίος, refers to the Biblical word for the Hebrew (really Judean, but see more on this below) people, from the 12 Tribes of Israel, who adhere to BIBLICAL Judaism (not the perverted form of it with the Talmud and Kaballah). The mistake that many Greek Protestants (and,yes, they exist but are very few) make, particularly in their modern Greek translations of the the ancient Greek text, like their co-religionists from various Protestant branches, is that they equate Ιουδαίος with Εβραίος when referring to Jews in today's terms!  HUGE MISTAKE!!!  This has to do with their false interpretations of Scripture, of course, and their beliefs that the Jews today are the Hebrews of Biblical times, etc.

That is why I ONLY read the ancient, untainted text. The modern Greek translations will put Εβραίος where in the ancient it says Ιουδαίος!!!  NOW WHO WAS BEHIND THIS???

Here in this link below is where Ιουδαίος is used in the all-known Strongs' Concordance. Unfortunately, when looking up in English this term, you have to put JEW:


Note: Εβραίος is NOT in the ancient Greek text except in ONE place (as an adjective) to show that it means an actual HEBREW from the Tribe of Benjamin. The modern use of Εβραίος (in modern Greek) has come to be used primarily and unwittingly as "Jew." Here is the mistake for us Greeks today. We should use Εβραίος as HEBREW ONLY because Εβραίος is a word used in ancient Greek, but too bad its meaning has been polluted, of course.  

See St. Paul on Εβραίος (Hebrew):
In Greek we do not have an appropriate word to express Jew, so we HAVE to use the ancient Εβραίος (remember it's really HEBREW in English coming from the ancient meaning of the word which SHOULD be in effect still today).  As a Greek I do not like this and want it to change.

In Greek, fortunately, I as a Greek can make the easy distinction between an Ιουδαίος and an Εβραίος in a conversation, etc. with other informed Greeks. In English, YOU CANNOT. That is why when I speak of the descendants of the Khazars when speaking in English, I use interchangeable terms to help myself describe them, like "Israeli," "Ashkenazi," or just plain "Jew" because that is what they are.  When I speak of the HEBREW people in the Bible is use synonyms like "Hebrew," "Israelite," "Children of Abraham," "Israel" or just plain "Judean."  

Judean really refers to the 2 Southern tribes of ancient Israel, Benjamin and Judah, but the term in the past has been turned into "Jew" by the Khazars' and is used today by their descendants. Long subject, but please study this.

THIS IS WHAT YOU WILL NOT LEARN FROM THEM, THE JEWS, OR THEIR SUPPORTERS.

CHRISTIANS SHOULD ERASE THE WORD JEW (in Enligh)FROM THEIR BIBLES AN USE THE APPROPRIATE TERMS TO DESCRIBE THE HEBREW PEOPLE FROM THAT ERA.

Jesus was an Ιουδαίος (JUDEAN) from the house of King David. He was NOT a Jew (a Khazar in other words).  He grew up in Nazareth and culturally was called a "Nazarene", too.  Nazareth was very multi-cultural (Greeks, Jews, Arabs, etc.) This symbolized that He recognizes with all people!

But, ultimately, He was/is the Son of God and died for the sins of all mankind.  Those that believe in Him are "Co-heirs" with Him in the Heavens. In God's kingdom their is "..no Jew (JUDEAN really), Greek, slave or free" but all are one heavenly people in Him.

WHAT IS INTERESTING IS THAT HE EUROPEAN KINGS FOR HUNDREDS OF YEARS AFTER CHRIST SOUGHT TO FIND THE DAVID BLOODLINE AND MARRY INTO IT BECAUSE THEY THOUGHT IT HAD POWER.

See Biblebelievers.org on this:

JESUS WAS NOT A Jew

"Jesus was a 'Judean', not a Jew."


See Jack Otto, too, on this:



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